Cho A=\(\frac{1}{4}.\frac{3}{6}.\frac{5}{8}....\frac{43}{46}.\frac{45}{48}\) và B=\(\frac{2}{5}.\frac{4}{7}.\frac{6}{9}.....\frac{44}{47}.\frac{46}{49}\).So sánh A và B
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a)Ta có:A:B=\(\left(\frac{1}{4}.\frac{3}{6}.\frac{5}{8}....\frac{43}{46}.\frac{45}{48}\right):\left(\frac{2}{5}.\frac{4}{7}.\frac{6}{9}....\frac{44}{47}.\frac{46}{49}\right)=\frac{\left(1.3.5...45\right).\left(2.4.6...46\right)}{\left(4.6.8...48\right)\left(5.7.9...49\right)}=\frac{3.2}{47.48.49}
Ta có :
\(\frac{x+1}{49}+\frac{x+2}{48}+\frac{x+3}{47}+\frac{x+4}{46}+\frac{x+5}{45}=-5\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\left(\frac{x+1}{49}+1\right)+\left(\frac{x+2}{48}+1\right)+\left(\frac{x+3}{47}+1\right)+\left(\frac{x+4}{46}+1\right)+\left(\frac{x+5}{45}+1\right)=-5+5\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\frac{x+50}{49}+\frac{x+50}{48}+\frac{x+50}{47}+\frac{x+50}{46}+\frac{x+50}{45}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\left(x+50\right)\left(\frac{1}{49}+\frac{1}{48}+\frac{1}{47}+\frac{1}{46}+\frac{1}{45}\right)=0\)
Vì \(\frac{1}{49}+\frac{1}{48}+\frac{1}{47}+\frac{1}{46}+\frac{1}{45}\ne0\)
Nên \(x+50=0\)
\(\Rightarrow\)\(x=-50\)
Vậy \(x=-50\)
Chúc bạn học tốt ~
\(\frac{x+1}{49}+1+\frac{x+2}{48}+1+\frac{x+3}{47}+1+\frac{x+4}{46}+1+\frac{x+5}{45}+1=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{x+50}{49}+\frac{x+50}{48}+...+\frac{x+50}{45}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x+50\right)\left(\frac{1}{49}+\frac{1}{48}+...+\frac{1}{45}\right)=0\)
Vì 1/49+1/48+...+1/45 khác 0
Nên x+50=0
do đó x=-50
\(M=\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2^4}+\frac{1}{2^7}-\frac{1}{2^{10}}+....+\frac{1}{2^{43}}-\frac{1}{2^{46}}+\frac{1}{2^{49}}-\frac{1}{2^{52}}\)
Nên \(2^3.M=4-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2^4}-\frac{1}{2^7}+.....+\frac{1}{2^{46}}-\frac{1}{2^{52}}\)
Suy ra \(2^3.M-M=4-\frac{1}{2^{52}}\)hay\(7.M=4-\frac{1}{2^{52}}\).
Khi đó \(M=\frac{4}{7}-\frac{1}{2^{52}.7}< 1\)
Vì \(\frac{9}{4}>1;M< 1\)nên \(\frac{9}{4}>M\)
Vậy \(\frac{9}{4}>M\)
lại ăn gian tiếp
Giúp mk điPeter Jin