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Vế thứ nhất lớn hơn hoặc bằng chứ.Thay a,b,c vào rồi cm bất đẳng thức là xong
Câu a : B-A= 10012 +10022 +10042 +10072 -10002-10032-10052-10062
=(10012-10002)+(10022-10032) (10042-10052)+(10072-10062)
HĐT số 3= (1001-1000)*(1001+1000)+(1002-1003)*(1002+1003)+(1004-1005)*(1004+1005)+(1007-1006)*(1007+1006)
=2001 -2005-2009+2013=0
vậy A=B
\(a)5-\left(x-6\right)=4\left(3-2x\right)\)
\(\Leftrightarrow5-x+6=12-8x\)
\(\Leftrightarrow-x+8x=12-5-6\)
\(\Leftrightarrow7x=1\Leftrightarrow x=\frac{1}{7}\)
a) 5-(x-6)=4(3-2x)
<=>5-x-6=12-8x
<=>-x+8x=2-5-6
<=>7x=1
<=>x=1/7
a) Ta có: \(\frac{x-91}{37}+\frac{x-86}{42}+\frac{x-78}{50}+\frac{x-49}{79}=4\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{x-91}{37}-1+\frac{x-86}{42}-1+\frac{x-78}{50}-1+\frac{x-49}{79}-1=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{x-91-37}{37}+\frac{x-86-42}{42}+\frac{x-78-50}{50}+\frac{x-49-79}{79}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{x-128}{37}+\frac{x-128}{42}+\frac{x-128}{50}+\frac{x-128}{79}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x-128\right)\left(\frac{1}{37}+\frac{1}{42}+\frac{1}{50}+\frac{1}{79}\right)=0\)
Vì \(\frac{1}{37}+\frac{1}{42}+\frac{1}{50}+\frac{1}{79}>0\)
nên x-128=0
hay x=128
Vậy: x=128
b) Ta có: \(\frac{x-29}{1970}+\frac{x-27}{1972}+\frac{x-25}{1974}+\frac{x-23}{1976}+\frac{x-1970}{29}+\frac{x-1972}{27}+\frac{x-1974}{25}+\frac{x-1976}{23}-8=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{x-29}{1970}-1+\frac{x-27}{1972}-1+\frac{x-25}{1974}-1+\frac{x-23}{1976}-1+\frac{x-1970}{29}-1+\frac{x-1972}{27}-1+\frac{x-1974}{25}-1+\frac{x-1976}{23}-1=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{x-29-1970}{1970}+\frac{x-27-1972}{1972}+\frac{x-25-1974}{1974}+\frac{x-23-1976}{1976}+\frac{x-1970-29}{29}+\frac{x-1972-27}{27}+\frac{x-1974-25}{25}+\frac{x-1976-23}{23}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x-1999\right)\left(\frac{1}{1970}+\frac{1}{1972}+\frac{1}{1974}+\frac{1}{1976}+\frac{1}{29}+\frac{1}{27}+\frac{1}{25}+\frac{1}{23}\right)=0\)
Vì \(\frac{1}{1970}+\frac{1}{1972}+\frac{1}{1974}+\frac{1}{1976}+\frac{1}{29}+\frac{1}{27}+\frac{1}{25}+\frac{1}{23}>0\)
nên x-1999=0
hay x=1999
Vậy: x=1999
a) Ta có \(\frac{x-91}{37}+\frac{x-86}{42}+\frac{x-78}{50}+\frac{x-49}{79}\)=4
<=>\(\frac{x-91}{37}+\frac{x-86}{42}+\frac{x-78}{50}+\frac{x-49}{79}-4=0\)
<=>\(\frac{x-91}{37}-1+\frac{x-86}{42}-1+\frac{x-78}{50}-1+\frac{x-49}{79}-1=0\)
<=>\(\frac{x-128}{37}+\frac{x-128}{42}+\frac{x-128}{50}+\frac{x-128}{79}=0\)
<=>(x-128)\(\left(\frac{1}{37}+\frac{1}{42}+\frac{1}{50}+\frac{1}{79}\right)=0\)
Vì \(\frac{1}{37}+\frac{1}{42}+\frac{1}{50}+\frac{1}{79}>0\)=>x-128=0<=>x=128
b)Tương tự
<=>x-128=0
<=>x=128
Chú ý \(\frac{1}{37}+\frac{1}{42}+\frac{1}{50}+\frac{1}{79}\)>0
b)tương tự
ủng hộ mk nha mọi người